• pivot_root@lemmy.world
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    9 months ago

    No, it’s exactly the same logic.

    The argument that digital piracy is theft is predicated on the idea that pirating is depriving the creator of their rightful property: the money from a sale. In the absence of said sale, that money wasn’t their property to begin with, however. The only way to reconcile this is by treating potential income as property.

    In doing so, a number of stupid things can be argued for:

    • Creating a new product is theft because it deprives the competition of their potential income.

    • Boycotting a company is theft because it deprives them of potential income.

    • Not purchasing a new phone is theft because it deprives the manufacturer of potential income.

    • Not hiring Tom because Bob was a better candidate is theft because it deprives Tom of potential income.

    There’s a reason that piracy legally falls under copyright infringement rather than theft. You aren’t depriving the creator of property by making a new digital copy of their media, but you are violating their copyright by creating an unauthorized copy.

    • Zoolander@lemmy.world
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      9 months ago

      It is not the same logic. You are not ingesting the work of the creator by going to a competitor. The issue is that you are gaining something from the labor of the creator without compensating them for that labor (which they gain from). It is an unequal exchange that both parties have not agreed to. It is theft. Going to a competitor and buying from them is an equal exchange - you’re paying money for the product of their labor.

      Everything else you’ve said continues to be dishonest because it is based on this very simple, fundamental flaw in your original argument.