• TheGrandNagus@lemmy.world
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    7 months ago

    The NFL doesn’t allow competition from teams from plenty of countries. Should those countries be able to sue the NFL on that basis, saying it’s anti-competitive?

    If your opinion on the above is “no”, could you then explain what merits this double standard?

    There seems to be an element of US exceptionalism here. The US does not get to impose management terms on foreign sporting organisations, except for the events that take place within their borders.

    • Baahb@feddit.nl
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      6 months ago

      The NFL, MLB, and whatever US based sports leagues actually have exceptions to the Sherman antitrust act. F1 does not have this, but are owned by a US based, publicly traded company, and are this is subject to US law, including the Sherman antitrust act.

      • TheGrandNagus@lemmy.world
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        6 months ago

        They have those clauses in the US, not the UK. So based on your logic the UK should be able to tell the NFL what they can/can’t do regardless of US law.

        You’re arguing both ways. That the UK can’t impose terms on the NFL because it’s under US law, but that the US can impose terms on FOM despite being under UK law.

        Incorrect. FOM is a UK company based in the UK. They are under UK jurisdiction, not US jurisdiction.

        Think of it this way, McDonalds is an American company, but their UK subsidiary has to follow UK law, not American law. Does that make sense to you? The UK business follows UK advertising law, food safety law, employee protection law, environmental law, etc. Not US law.

        • Baahb@feddit.nl
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          6 months ago

          If they operate in the US, like they are at this very moment in Miami, they are supposed to follow US law. They don’t get some weird ass exception just cause the governing body is located elsewhere. Just like countries are free to ban cigarette advertising, the US does have the ability to say “you want to race here, follow our rules.”

          Think of it this way, McDonalds is an American company, but their UK subsidiary has to follow UK law, not American law. But if that UK franchisee wants to open a store in the US, they still have to follow US law. Does that make sense to you? The business that is operating in the US follows US advertising law, food safety law, employee protection law, environmental law, etc. Not JUST UK law.

          • TheGrandNagus@lemmy.world
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            6 months ago

            Yes, they can revoke their Miami race. Good, we’re getting somewhere. I’m glad you’ve come around and changed your stance.

            They have jurisdiction of what happens in the US, but not elsewhere. I.e. they can blackmail FOM by saying if you don’t allow (another) American team into F1 then you can’t race in the US…

            But they cannot apply US laws to FOM or enforce that they must allow more entrants.

            Not JUST UK law.

            Yes just UK law. A McDonald’s in the UK only has to follow UK law. If you think otherwise, you are wrong.

    • Rapidcreek@lemmy.worldOP
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      7 months ago

      There’s usually a reason. What is the reason? It is the answer to the letters question.

      • TheGrandNagus@lemmy.world
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        6 months ago

        I don’t know what you’re saying, can you speak plainly? This reads like a chatGPT response or a bad attempt at a riddle.

        Should countries be able to compel the NFL to allow entry to teams they like, on the basis that not allowing them in is anti-competitive?

        If no, then what’s with the double standard? Is it American exceptionalism? Something else?

        • Rapidcreek@lemmy.worldOP
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          7 months ago

          If the NFL received a request to franchise a foreign team and rejected it, they would state why, per their own rules, they rejected it. That is what the letter demands.

          Understand?

          So, to go back in time…

          The FIA spent months of due diligence on the Andretti Global business plan and resources. They pronounced them good to go.

          The teams and Liberty made Andretti jump through hoops, and rejected them giving no good reason.

          • TheGrandNagus@lemmy.world
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            6 months ago

            There’s already an explanation: because they wanted to and aren’t obliged to let anybody into their club that wants to join.

            And nah, the NFL doing that wouldn’t matter. Not letting them in would still be anti-competitive and not following UK law.

            • Rapidcreek@lemmy.worldOP
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              6 months ago

              So, that proves they are anti competitive and they’ll be referred to the the DOJ just like FIFA. Congrats

              • TheGrandNagus@lemmy.world
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                6 months ago

                It proves nothing other than it’s their sporting organisation where they call the shots, and they called a shot.

                Is it anti-competitive for a private sporting organisation to not allow people to enter whenever they want? I don’t think so.

                Again, since you keep dodging it, should the UK or elsewhere be able to force the NFL to grant entry to UK teams on the grounds of it being anti-competitive as it stands?

                  • TheGrandNagus@lemmy.world
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                    6 months ago

                    No. You are misunderstanding how this works.

                    If Andretti wants to take FOM to court to join F1 then the Concorde Agreement comes into it, which is set out in English law. FOM is headquartered in the UK, and Formula 1 disputes are governed by agreements that designate English courts as the venue (although some that impact the FIA side of things are in French law). Since Formula 1’s operations are rooted in UK law, any legal challenge by Andretti against FOM would have to follow the rules set out in these agreements, which require legal proceedings to happen in the UK. No ifs, no buts.

                    Even though FOM is owned by an American company, the legal framework around Formula 1means that any disputes have to be dealt with in UK courts.

                    Think of it this way. If Cadburys refused to grant a license to a company in Australia to sell their chocolate there, they’d go to court in the UK, because Cadburys is a UK company, despite being owned by a US firm. They’d be taking Cadburys to court, not Mondelez. Just as Andretti would take FOM to court, not Liberty.

                    I don’t have any problem with Andretti taking them to court…they just need to do it in the right place where they can actually do something, all the US can do is review it, say they agree but cant enforce a thing as FOM is not a US company.